A: Write Maxwell’s Equation.
A: now please remove the Maxwell correction term. And tell me if the equations are consistent.
B= B0 ei(k’.r-w’t) (k’,B0 are vectors btw),(here there is k’ and w’)
E=E0ei(k.r-wt) (here there is k and w)
Prove k’=k and w’ = w.
B: Draw the 1D infinite well potential.
B: write the Wavefunctions and energy values. (Energy Eigenstate and value)
B: Now draw the 3rd eigenstate.
B: Now imagine If the base wasn’t horizontal but slanting (like y=x), then how will the eigenstate change?
B: Give me the qualitative picture.
Me: Since k is dependent on E-V and this gets lower so K decreases and wavelength increase also the wavefunction amplitude is lower at higher V.
The first Half cycle (the part between x=0 and first node) of this modified V(x) have a bigger or smaller amplitude than the first half cycle of the normal particle in the box.
The total Probability will be 1 and since the two other part has lower amplitude this will compensate and hence will be bigger,
C: A particle is thrown up in a resistive medium where Fres depends on v.
C: What would be the velocity at time t->infinity.
ME: it will depend on the initial velocity.
C: Write the force equations in terms of v and solve the differential equation
Me: The velocity is constant at t->infinity as at some point the resistive force gets equal to mg and the ball has not acceleration so the ball is traveling in constant speed.
C: what is this velocity called?
Me: Critical Velocity? (I couldn’t recall the term)
C: No It is called Terminal Velocity.
RESULT : Not Selected(Wait Listed).
- Cycloid motion and Cyclotron motion of charged particle derivation. (This was not asked directly but the result arrived after successive questions on Lorentz force and diff equations)
- A loop which is cutting a B field pulling a mass and when there is flux changing the block is moving down until the flux in a loop starts changing again. Leading to a Periodic motion. something of that sorts. So, the questions were quite doable.